some debate on that. a lot of scholars nowadays actually say there's no difference between the two. I think that's garbage. here's my take. Agape is used differently in Scripture than it is in contemporary greek culture. In all actuality, for the greeks, phileo is the higher form of love (because it denotes a fond affection for someone), and agape is the lesser love, because it doesn't have the connotation of having much affection tied to it. In the New Testament, this kinda changes. Agape love is mostly used as the Love God has for His people. It's a love that is freely chosen, not governed by emotions or passions, and so it is the higher love, because Christians love those whom they don't like! So, in the little episode with peter and Jesus, Jesus asks peter first "Do you love me like God loves you?" or rather, "do you freely choose to love you no matter how you feel at the moment." Peter answers "I have a fond affection for you." As if to say "Not only do I freely choose to love you, but my heart is drawn to you." Ironically, Peter is trying to up the ante on Jesus, but he's actually showing that his love for Jesus is lacking. Again Jesus asks "Peter do you agapao me?" Peter "Lord, you know I phileo you." And finally Jesus asks "Peter do you even phileo me?" and Peter's feelings get hurt. I think the point is that Jesus is going to the depths of Peter's sin. Peter once blubbered about how he'd follow Jesus even to death, and then denied Him three times. Now, Jesus asks him, "do you love me" once for each of the denials, in a sense reinstating Peter by showing Peter the depth of the lack of his love for Jesus, and the faithfulness of God's grace on his behalf. If someone smarter than me tells you something different though, believe him.
2 comments:
Ill ask a priest for you Dave; the answer in my head is probably not only wrong but I wouldn't even be able to type it out properly.
some debate on that. a lot of scholars nowadays actually say there's no difference between the two. I think that's garbage. here's my take. Agape is used differently in Scripture than it is in contemporary greek culture. In all actuality, for the greeks, phileo is the higher form of love (because it denotes a fond affection for someone), and agape is the lesser love, because it doesn't have the connotation of having much affection tied to it. In the New Testament, this kinda changes. Agape love is mostly used as the Love God has for His people. It's a love that is freely chosen, not governed by emotions or passions, and so it is the higher love, because Christians love those whom they don't like! So, in the little episode with peter and Jesus, Jesus asks peter first "Do you love me like God loves you?" or rather, "do you freely choose to love you no matter how you feel at the moment." Peter answers "I have a fond affection for you." As if to say "Not only do I freely choose to love you, but my heart is drawn to you." Ironically, Peter is trying to up the ante on Jesus, but he's actually showing that his love for Jesus is lacking. Again Jesus asks "Peter do you agapao me?" Peter "Lord, you know I phileo you." And finally Jesus asks "Peter do you even phileo me?" and Peter's feelings get hurt. I think the point is that Jesus is going to the depths of Peter's sin. Peter once blubbered about how he'd follow Jesus even to death, and then denied Him three times. Now, Jesus asks him, "do you love me" once for each of the denials, in a sense reinstating Peter by showing Peter the depth of the lack of his love for Jesus, and the faithfulness of God's grace on his behalf. If someone smarter than me tells you something different though, believe him.
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